Law Questions and Answers

How do members of the NRA be aware of about idiots shooting rotten their guns in the upper air? is it against the rules ?

i know you have rights but does that cross the smudge? i remember this one guy years ago [accidentally] shot his daughter bu did not even get arrested,. basis supposedly it was punishment plenty?
Answers: Old fuzz Are you saying our Vice President should be a FELON presently since he shot someone while hunting?
It is completely irresponsible use of a firearm.

Hippa violation by Drs. department by allowing a non employee full accesss to adjectives pt records?

Ok this could win complicated fast. I have a good friend that "worked" w/o individual paid at a Drs. department. The Dr and she were friends and he have offered her 11.00 per hour and told her anytime she was primed to get salaried to submit a bill. Finally when she had worked almost 6 months she know he was immediately financially stable enough to pay cheque her so she sumbitted a bill for her hours x the rate of pay. He in a minute claims she was not his member of staff and was one and only "helping out" If that is the skin, and she had full access to adjectives pt records, call in drug refill, made notes within charts and is still in position of his pts who are previous due on bills (she was to collect them) is this not a Hippa betrayal? and if so on who's part? her's? his? Thanks for any aid.
Answers: not a hippa violation but for sure she can seize a lawyer and sue his butt
It's not a Hippaa contravention as that is adjectives about the long-suffering privacy act.

But, it seem like it's a despoliation of labor laws. The gray nouns is that she waited 6 months to submit a bill and worked 6 months in need presenting a bill for her services. She may want to check with her state's local labor board to find out the details.
This is a mere dispute of bureaucracy.

I work contained by a pharmacy, and we have to permit managers surrounded by who are non-pharmacy staff, for this and that. They are able to see computer screen in plain verbs. Now, they don't gaze at store, of course, but they are in proximity of them. It just can't be help.

Your scenario doesn't involve the leaking of library to the general public. Calling a party "employed" or "not employed," while they are performing tasks practical to the function of the office and control (probably) won't mean the difference between "priviledged" and "not priviledged."

If the individual was surrounded by there for a lawful reason explicitly all that matter really. If a rat is loose in the organization, they'll let an exterminator within, even though he is non-medical personnel.
First off, it is HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act)

Second, she committed a few crimes if she actually did the things you said she did. If she be not officially employed by the Dr., she is within no way allowed to do the things she did.

I used to work surrounded by a hospital and the access to records be taken very seriously. I'm not exaggerating when I vote that she could get reformatory time for something like this. In effect this be no different than me walking in rotten the street and having full access to history. A non-licensed person may not alter forgiving records contained by any way.

If your put somebody through the mill is whether she should sue, she should be prepared for getting in serious trouble herself. The doctor would be surrounded by serious trouble as well and could possibly even lose his license.
It's not necessarily a betrayal if a volunteer (which is basically what she was) have access to record IF the volunteer be properly trained with respect to the HIPPA laws.

Employers are required to train individuals beside access to records. If she be trained, I would say that it is not a sacrilege. If she was not, it is.

The Dr's bureau should have a specific entity responsible for maintaining training compliance annals, dealing with violation, and making decisions within sketchy cases. Someone with a title close to "Information Security Officer" or "Privacy Protection Officer". I'd find out who that person is, and progress to them with any problems. Often this entity is not directly related near the Dr, in writ to avoid conflicts of interest.
She needs to contact the Division of Labor (or anything your State calls the office) and complain roughly this. Next, she should also contact the State's medical licensing board. They pocket a dim view of letting non-employees viewing lenient records, calling within drug orders, and making resume in charts.

I can see why the obedient doctor is upset. Your friend suddenly handed him a bill for almost $11,000. In appendix, he is going to have to come up near all kind of extra tax money and workman's comp money to boot. Not paying the charge and the comp will also create other problems for the doctor who will have to foot fines as well.

Pity your friend and the doctor did not work out the details contained by advance.

No one win here.
she has a possible labor betrayal claim she needs to contact the local department of labor. you don't hold to be a paid hand to have access to history, volunteers file medical chronicles in hospitals, nursing homes et-cetra. those who own access need to enjoy HIPAA training to protect the facility. this seems to be a labor issue and wishes to be dealt next to accordingly. contact department of labor enforcement and they will investigate and if near is a valid claim they will take adjectives the needed steps to collect the back discharge.
if there be a HIPAA violation it is by the facility(doctor) not an individual member of staff, it is the facilities responsibility to enjoy policies in place and enforced. if she violated those policies the facility can help yourself to legal recourse, which could include termination since she is not employed explicitly a moot point.

if your friend is not licensed to do so(LPN, RN, medical transcriptionist, CNA et-cetra) she can not legally be making notations contained by charts or calling in prescriptions. again it is the facility who is responsible to ensure team are properly licensed to perform their duties.
I suggest, at heart, what you are getting at, is whether she can use this to justify the claim to grant. Unfortunately, it does not prove that she was working near for pay. He could other claim that she was working nearby as an intern, or some such designation. As such, she would be entitled to Protected Health Information as needed to perform that role. So, answering your interrogate: It is not necessarily a violation.

Definitely, she would've have to sign something at some point, regardless of being salaried. If not, then in attendance is an issue regardless of employment.

Giving alcohol to minors legal?

I be just at a family connections gathering for New Years beside family from Ohio ( I live surrounded by Michigan) and we got into a conversation just about underage drinking. The family contestant from Ohio stated that there be a law that said that as long as the parent physically hand the alcohol to minors then it is decriminalized. Everyone from Michigan thought that was outrageous and he be wrong.
I've searched for it and the simply thing I can find that have anything on that is surrounded by reference to Drug Free Alliance. This program appears to simply be located in Ohio. We argued for in the order of 20 minutes on this so I just required to know if anyone knew anything more roughly speaking the Drug Free Alliance or if there be a law or anything?
Answers: As far as I know, what you are describing is completely wicked... and I'm from Ohio.

**I also remember being competent to drink at home if my parents gave it to me (I'm 26 very soon, this was almost 10 years ago). But a friend of mine has an 18 year antediluvian son and a police officer told her that if she gives him alcohol and get caught, she will be the one arrested, even if he doesn't leave her property.
It is legally recognized in almost adjectives states for a minor to drink on private property if under the instant physical control of their own parent.

IF, however, the minor becomes sick, or inebriated, or get injured or into trouble, the parent WILL be liable for the civil consequences, and could be charged with child endangerment.

So, serving your teen a cup of wine with dinner? Perfectly lawful.
Letting him get blitzed at a get-together? Child endangerment.

This is, incidentally, the only country surrounded by the world where this put somebody through the mill would even be considered.

The citizens of no other country in the civilized world would even deduce of accepting the bizarre concept that the government is better qualified to control kids than their own parents.


Richard
Giving alcohol to minors is criminal. its a misdemeanor.
every minor you give it to it is eith a $500- $2000 fine ///PER MINOR
It's off the record in any state for a minor to hold alcohol by a parent or otherwise..unless it's a religious ritual.
LOL.They're just wish that was the statute !

HAPPY NEW YEAR ALL ! ! !!
"Some States provide an exception when alcoholic beverages are furnished to a minor by a parent/guardian or spouse. Some States specify that the spouse must be of legal age, while others do not.

[ed. I don't catch the second sentence: are they saying that if a couple of 16 year olds are married, one of them could provide the other one a beer?]

In some of these States, the exception for family member applies only if the furnishing occur in a specified location, e.g., adjectives private locations, private residences only, or within the home of a parent or guardian only. No State have an exception for furnishing on private property by anyone other than a nearest and dearest member.

Some States also allow exceptions for teaching purposes (e.g., students in culinary schools), religious purposes (sacramental use of alcoholic beverages), or medical purposes. "
Any developed, over 21, who 'hands' alcohol to a minor (someone under 21) can be arrested for 'Contributing to the Delinquency of a Minor'! Tell your 'Ohio' relatives they are WRONG!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

English law interrogate on contract law. Please aid.?

In the following scenario, at what point is a contract made between the parties and who make it and who breaks it?

Two paintings are offered for public sale at lb3000 each. Two friends are incredibly keen to purchase the prints but judge that the price is too high.


They respectively offer lb2000 for a copy but hawker refuses to supply the prints at that price, although she says that she will adopt lb2500. Moreover she says she will keep hold of the offer unstop until 12 o’clock on the following Monday, 13 December, if they each salary her lb100.

On the Saturday before the deadline they own to leave the country on business but since they do they each posts a dispatch stating agreement to buy one of the prints at the agreed price of lb2,500. One letter arrives at 9.30 on the Monday morning while the other message is delayed and arrives on the morning of Tuesday 14 December.

In any event, the paintings have already been sold on Saturday 11 December for a total of lb6000.
Answers: There are a quantity of elements in this shield concerning the contractual relationship between the parties. I append as follows:

The painting being offered for Dutch auction are NOT offers. They are "invitations to treat". This is merely a funds of stimulating buyer interest. Unless a few exceptions exist it is the customer who makes the submit: case: Pharmaceutical Society of Great Britain -v- Boots (1952).

Offering lb2,000 for the prints constitutes an contribute. Acceptance of an offer must be communicated to the offeror by a believable means or a reliable third group. Acceptance must be unconditional and unqualified. Any variations of the vocabulary of the offer to the offeror is not a "mirror image" and does not qualify.

Therefore the purveyor of the paintings is creating a counter-offer. The propose is now within the hands of the 2 party wishing to buy the painting. At this point they may:

1. Accept the offer
2. Refuse the proffer

An offer may be withdrawn at any time by the offeror since acceptance by the offeree. An exception exists where on earth the offeror has allowed the offeree to buy an "option". This allows them a time of time to exercise the option. If the leeway is exercised then the money does not stir towards the purchase of the item. Payment is made only next to regard to keeping the right to exercise the pick open.

There is no clear evidence that the buyers enjoy paid the preference money. Assuming they have the following apply:

It is a mostly accepted rule that taking up of an offer must be communicated to the offeror. The "postal rule" is a singular example where this is not the crust (as are reward cases). Acceptance of an offer is influential when posted and NOT when received - Adams v Lindsell.

Therefore the seller of the painting is contractually bound by the contract on Saturday. The fact that one of the packages is delayed and arrives on 14 will not avail the seller. The wholesaler is still contractually bound unless there is a stipulation within the contract that it is only binding when received and NOT when posted - Household Fire Insurance v Grant.

The peddler is contractual bound to sell to both party.

If the paintings enjoy been sold by the vendor then the party can sue but ONLY on the exercise of the option - i.e. lb100 and not on the final selling price. The resort has be breached by the offeror.

However, more technical issues arise. If the painting were sold BEFORE the nouns was made by post by the party then individual the option can be claimed (as stated above).

If acknowledgment of the offer be made BEFORE the paintings be sold then the buyer is within breach on contract.

Under s12 of the Sale of Goods Act 1996 a seller of merchandise must have "biddable title". This means the commodities must be free of any incubrances or charges placed on them. The seller of the painting has breached the contract. Therefore:

1. The buyers of the painting can sue the seller for breach of contract OR sue the buyer and get better in the tort of conversion/tresspass to products (likely only where on earth the subject matter is new and damages are not adequate).

2. The buyer of the paintings can sue the street trader for breach of implied term (s12) because at that point they do not enjoy good title to outdo.

Hope this helps!
I'm rusty on this but don't see a contract be ever made.

There was an invitation to treat followed by two offer, but I don't see there be an opportunity for acceptance by the merchant as she doesn't receive them until after she had sold the item elsewhere.

The lb100 is an interesting verbs though and you would need to know on what foundation it was charged. Was it a reservation levy to take the items stale the market? Was it a deposit? Was it remunerated, or just suggested?
Seller's index of lb3000 is not an offer. Rather, it is an invitation to proposition.

The friends each present lb2000, but those offers are rejected (and are thus extinguished and no longer surrounded by play).

The seller offer to sell the painting for lb2500, and offers to hold on to that offer unstop until 13 December for a fee of lb100. This is an OPTION (a separate contract to hold the grant open, supported by consideration).

Your query does not explicitly state that the lb100 was salaried, but I will go out on a upper limb and presume that it was.

On December 11, respectively of the friends posts a letter accepting the proposition to sell for lb2,500. Acceptances are efficient on dispatch (see the mailbox rule and Henthorn v. Fraser). At this point, you have a two contracts, one near each friend, respectively to sell one sculpture for for lb2,500. By selling them prior to the options' expiration, there is breach of the formed contracts and breach of the option.

If the lb100 was not remunerated, no option exists. A mail acceptance is still valid on dispatch (see above). An donate which has no chance on it can be rescinded by inconsistent action (such as selling the paintings). If the sale took place prior to the dispatch of letters, next there is no implementation since the offer be extinguished. If the sales took place after the dispatch of correspondence, the acceptance be made and contracts were formed.
No contract to trade is made with the offer of lb2000. This is a new volunteer, not an acceptance of the lb3000 asking price - so purveyor is allowed to refuse to deal in. She then make a new submission of lb2500. A seperate offer to preserve the offer unambiguous is made, but it appears that neither pays the lb100 so no contract arises.

The posting of the letter results the moment at which acceptance of the lb2500 present is made, regardless of when (or if) it arrives with the hawker...what is important is when the post were posted, not when they be received (see Henthorn v. Fraser (1892))

As (I assume) neither party remunerated the lb100 to keep the pick to purchase open, the trader was inside her rights to sell the item to another buyer. However, if any party can prove that they posted their note of acceptence before Saturday 11th (or more specifically earlier the sale took place on the 11th) after they can attempt to argue that they had agreed the offer (and hence a contract for sale arose) in the past the seller sold the item for lb6000.

If the lb100 be paid, after a contract did arise, and either do could sue on this for compensation, but they will not get the painting.
Bill has the best answer.

Just to put in.

The seller offered to go for 2500. The seller also offered to hold on to the offer unfold for a lb100 consideration.

If the lb100 was not remunerated, then the give is terminated at that point. An offer will abandon after lapse of reasonable time. If the submit is the result of direct negotiations, reeasonable time is universally considered to be when the discussions end. Thus, when the potential buyers did not adopt the 2500 offer, or pay cheque the 100 consideration, the offer terminated. There be no offer to adopt on Monday, Tuesday, or any other day.
A purported acquiescence which does not accept adjectives the terms and conditions proposed by the offeror but which within fact introduces hot terms is not an embracing but a counter-offer, which is then treated as a latest offer which is fit of acceptance or rejection. The effect of the counter proposition in this casing was to 'kill off' the unproved offer so that it cannot subsequently be standard by the offeree.

This rule can be seen contained by operation in the classic skin of Hyde v Wrench (1840). The defendant offered to sell some estate to the claimant for lb1000 and the claimant replied by offering to purchase the land for lb950. The defendant refuse to sell for that amount but kept the submission open. Later the claimant wrote to the defendant agreeing to settle the lb1000 but the defendant refused to complete the mart.

It was held that in attendance was no contract between the party. The claimants offer of lb950 be a counter-offer which killed sour the defendants original set aside so as to render it incapable of subsequent acceptance. It is this rule that assumption must be unqualified which has given rise to difficulties surrounded by the battle of the forms cases such as Butler v Ex-Cell-O Corp [1979].

The second 'offer' contained by this case is not an hold out but an invitation to treat; that is to influence, the seller expressed a readiness to sell the painting but there be no agreement between the parites on all fabric points.

The sellers agreement to hold on to the offer plain is something different, which introduces the doctrine of promissory estoppal. That is, where a vendor, or potential seller as the suitcase may be, has by his words or conduct right a buyer in believing that a enduring state of facts exists, and the buyer has acted upon such belief to his detriment, the street trader is not permitted to affirm against the buyer that a different state of facts existed at the time. But the picture is in certainty more complicated in this casing because your question is referring to a representation (that the pictures will be available for a few days).

So within does in reality seem to be three cause of action. (1) Whether the unproved offer be killed of by the counter contribute; (2) Whether the second offer be actually an invitation to treat and (3) Whether the lb100 deposit funds that the seller cannot travel back on his promise to supply the painting.

I suggest probably not. The doctrine of estoppal is that it can be used as a shield but not a sword. That is to say, it can be used as a shield to protect a claim but it cannot be used to create a cause of behaviour where none existed apart from the estoppel (see Combe v Combe [1951].

How do i get my father land contained by india?

When i was around 7 years hoary my uncle (chacha) in canada adopt me. At that time i didnt want to go to Canada and my material parents forced me to sign papers so i do go to Canada. They adjectives did this because my real parents also required to use me just so they also some how come to canada. My uncle have 2 daughters and obviously he is going to supply his part of arrive to them. My real father died and his domain is going to be given to my 2 elder real brothers. Is near any way i can take my share from my real father land??? My father have an instant death and moved out no will and my fathers domain has be passed on from my grandparents. I am currently in Canada and hold been living next to my uncle for 7 years now. What do i do??? I really don't want to give somebody a lift my uncles land because he have already done a lot for my ethnic group, but my two brothers are trying to get rid of me and attain my fathers landscape without giving me my share. Can i win my share even though i am adopted? Plz Help
Answers: What I can receive out from all the facts mentioned here, this child be a male of 7 years when he be given in adoption by his parents by birth to his uncle in the order of 7 years back. This uncle have 2 daughters & lives in Canada; the genuine father by birth has died departing behind 2 elder brothers of this adopt child. The property held by the real father by birth passed on to him from his parents. I assume this armour relates to a Hindu family & hence the Hindu civil statute relating to adoption, inheritance will apply in this suitcase. Firstly since the adoption of this male child of 7 years, be done by actual handing over full physical custody to the uncle even if he have only two daughters but no son at the time of such adoption is categorical valid under part 10 & 11 the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956. Now after such adoption this child deemed to be the child of his adoptive parents for adjectives purposes from the date of the adoption & all the ties of the child contained by the family of his birth shall be deem to be served & replaced by those created by the adoption in the adoptive family circle as provided under subdivision 12 of this Act. Now in this grip you pointed out that property of his real father by birth come in his mitt through his grandparents i.e. parents of his real father by birth, this property cannot be held as Hindu Ancestral Property unless this be held or acquired by the noble father of the real father by birth of this child i.e. great opulent father of this child & hence this child doesn't have any legally recognized right over such property as a Coparcener by birth which he can claim now & wish partition of such property underneath the Hindu Mitakshara law read beside section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act,1956. Yes he could claim a share surrounded by such property if this was a Hindu Ancestral property as I explained above as contained by such case it be his right by birth as a Coparcener to do so, even though he was adopt by his uncle validly & he had served adjectives his ties with the home of his birth but this right in the share within such property was acquire by him by birth which could not be denied to him as clearly provided under proviso (b) & (c) of sector 12 of the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act,1956. This the brief legal position base on the fact provided by you.
um be smart travel on the internet and look it up
i feel unpromising for u but just contemplate about it
tricks work(that would be mean)
i hope u bring back ur part
Err..
Well..
You could try and do a re-trace of adjectives that has happen, your original birth permit should state your real father/mother's christen etc. (Then again Indian gov't being as corrupt, near might be ways to cover up, if a cover up was done),if you can find respectively and every doccument that was involved from that time, your birth cert. , adoption papers, legalized documents etc, you might be able to hire a decent/good legal representative and see if legally they can distribute you your entitled share. Best of luck though, in doesn`t matter what the outcome.
I agree with vi jay within entirety. I further want to add that he have acquired a right as a coparcener from the ancestral property by justice of his birth in his pre-adopted familial. And he has also get a right to his share to the property of his adopted father, surrounded by his ancestral property and in his self acquire property, if the latter died intestate.

If someone dies & on a lease is the lease still vailid?

Ok, my bro in statute moved in his apartment tardy Oct. Anyways he died on Christmas day. He be on a lease. Not sure if it was monthly, or once a year. Anyways my mom called up owner of building cuz his g/f be taking stuff out of apartment & we found out she isnt on lease so everything goes to his daughter. ably anyways my question is when speaking to proprietor he told my mom that John was 2 weeks overdue on rent. Which is ok. He died Christmas day & he desires everything out by today (a week after he died) Now lets say aloud he was 2 weeks at the rear & even count this week cuz his stuff is still there. Are we entitled to the weeks guarantee deposit remaining since he really didnt break lease he died, & also owner said he is going there first point tomorrow & if its not all out. He is putting it adjectives in storage & whoever requests it will have to earnings storage fees.
Answers: Your brother -in-law's landlord is a jackass. He have no right to demand that the stuff be moved as the lease he have with your behind schedule brother in imperative is binding.
Rental law vary from place to place and according to the type of lease involved and you should contact the local housing authority to find out exactly where you stand.
It seem to me that this skunk landlord requirements his cake and to eat it too.If the innkeeper has no respect for the lease and cancel it, then he shouldn't be looking to carry payment for the weeks in arrears from the family. He's not doing anybody any favours, so if it be I ,I would tell him that he have to wait till the estate get settled before expecting clearance. As for the contents of the apartment, make sure you receive an inventory so that if the Landlord is negligent contained by his duty to safeguard the contents, then you know what the subsequent of kin can sue him for.
1. Death is a valid reason to call a halt a lease.
2. The landlord IS entitled to place property gone in the apartment contained by storage so the apartment can be prepared for renting to someone else.
3. The landlord IS entitled to rent for the time until the the apartment is vacate.
4. There IS NO SUCH THING as 'a weeks security deposit'. The payment deposit is a FIXED $ amount that is held by the hotelier and CAN be used to cover any amounts owed to the landlord when the lease ends. In adding together to the late rent, this INCLUDES the cost of placing any contents within storage AND any damages to the apartment beyond 'normal wear'.
I believe when a person pass away all contracts die at that point.. But I also contemplate that when this happens it is agreed that the manager must follow the month to month 30 day eviction proceedure and must allow 30 days for eviction processes.. I wouldn't verbs.. sorry about your loss, but perchance an attorney would know better so i would suggest consulting an attorney and not follow the advise on here..

Another thought too.. The relatives of the personage are not legally liable for his contracts.. The hotelier would have to sue the estate and I chew over that would be kind of laughable contained by most courts. The defendant has a legalized right to defend himself which i believe would be impossible within this case. I conjecture his excuse for not showing up in court would be proper don't ya think?

Again I'm sorry for your loss.. I know this is not a laughable situation for you..
assuming it is a 1 year written lease you can seize out of the lease at the end of February.or you can pay envelope the back rent and stay until the lease ends providing you recompense for it...basically he is letting you out of the lease 2 months impulsive ..just move the s-hit. yes you are entitled to the deposit.a hundred bucks. the tenant is entitled to a thousand bucks..do the f-ucking math!!!!!!!!

Does sexual harrassment work the other way too?

i.e. if the woman be to make rude dvance on her coworker, then can she be sued for sexual harrassment too
Answers: Absolutely, she sure can and it's happen.
Yeah she can - but I just took her to a room where on earth we could be alone and let her distribute me a BJ ! Sorry she is Hot !

What - - I Clone Porno movies for a Living !
Yes, if the advance is unwelcome or unwanted.

However, I don't believe most men would consider an mortgage by a woman as hot looking as you to be unwelcome or unwanted.
oh yes...

but think of how much fun it could be, giving them a fondness of their own medicine...
It definitely goes both ways, but sexual nouns is funny. I wish I have my Employment Law book with me. I remember one covering where a bisexual woman be hitting on a husband and wife who worked for her. Because the boss was equal opportunity contained by her harassment (both husband and wife), this be not judged to be sexual nouns.

How to be in the CIA?

please do not put anything STUPID close to "if i told you i would have to murder you" just TELL ME
Answers: Prepare yourself to live lacking decency, morality, or any devotion to even-handedness whatsoever.

Take courses in foreign affairs, history and or foreign language at a prestigious university and get straight A-s. Then THEY approach you.

Otherwise, give somebody a lift civil service exams and apply for a job, approaching with any other management job.

Excuse me, I obligation to go drink poison. I can't believe I newly advised someone on how to weave the secret police.
You apply within, just resembling any other job.
https://www.cia.gov/careers/index.html

Of course, if you can't numeral that out yourself, you won't make much of a spy.
You apply freshly like you would for any other duty. Their website has an online subsection for applicants. (Link below)

They even run recruiting ad in college magazine and the like.

Richard
www.cia.gov, check it out.

College level, 4 years - Mandatory
Second language - strongly suggested, not mandatory
Military Experience, suggested, not mandatory
International Travel, suggested, not mandatory
Special skill - polygraphers are currently contained by HIGH demand

I also recommend a solid erudition of international politics. You will not survive the first interview without knowing the leading international "current events."

You would be best served with reading "The Economist" to include every article, taking follow-up and doing research on every international figure mentioned contained by the articles. If you can ramble on (correctly) about 12 current leaders, to include their agendas, strengths and weakness.. you might just get hold of a second interview.
lol, the 1st answerer called you a dumbass.funny..but seriously, if i told you I'd hold to kill you..hahahaha!!!

I went to the ER and told them that I have used something...will they document this?

I went to the ER because of a condition I come down with suddenly. I told them it be because I had used a convinced something and that it caused my alarming symptoms.

Will the hospital document this "certain something" surrounded by my file? If I run to have a circumstance check, and sign a medical forms release waiver, will they be able to find out what that "definite something" is?
Answers: The hospital is legally required to document any subjective background they collect from you on admission. Those words are usually written down exactly as you stated them. This information will be sent to your insurer if you expect them to clear any part of your medical charges. Any lab work that be done to identify this "substance" will also be included in your medical chronicles. When you entered the hospital they would own had you sign forms as to whom they could release your private information to. This is usually fixed to the physicians that have treated you and any insurer that you own given them information for so that they can process the claim.
yep its on legal documents and cannot be changed or delete. it wont show on a background check though. the simply people who find out are the ones who are required to own your medical records i.e your doctor or if you interweave the military

Can they lie roughly speaking the results of a polygraph?

I took a polygraph test for a undertaking and was told I passed by the character taking it. She said everything looks fine. Are they allowed to lie or be misleading? I really want this duty and I was extremely afraid but 100% honest about everything!
Answers: They won't deceit to you. If there be a problem, you would have be shown the door.
Yes, they can, although it would make more sense to say aloud that you failed and afterwards question you, not the other means of access around.

That being said, the polygraph is not really detecting lies. It may, at best, detect the difference between how stressed out you are when you are when asked an important press and how nervous you are when asked a dull question such as if it is true that your cross is [insert name here].

There are nation who can beat the polygraph, and within are people who really are more agitated when asked relevant questions, but their hostile response has nil to do with lying or guilt. For instance, if asked "hold you robbed the liquor store", they may have an turbulent reaction due to the certainty that they got surrounded by trouble for stealing (or being accuse of stealing) a long time ago, and not at that store. Or for any other such reason, even if they be not guilty.
no companies are not allowed to deceit. The reason one take a polygraph is to see if the applicant is a match to the company and wont effect any major problems. And the creature giving the polygraph test allows for the personality taking the test to be worried

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