Law Questions and Answers

How long do you have to profile assault charges in the state of minn.?


Answers: Just so you know, while I am an attorney, I'm NOT licensed to practice imperative in Minnesota, and this isn't any sort of legal suggestion. I just found your answer by doing an internet go through, and I was charitable of surprised to see how much the answer differs from my state. Take a look at the information yourself (there's a table included on maybe the third page or so), but it would appear to me that there's a three year statute of limitations on any nature of assault charge, whether it's misdemeanor or felony level.

Practically, though, I will recount you that filing criminal charges on someone for anything close to that more than a day or so after the reality is getting into shaky territory unless there's rather a bit of evidence to support the charge (such as other witnesses, medical records, physical evidence, etc.). Absent that big-hearted of proof, it's typically a he said/she said situation, which most police and prosecutors are not thrilled to take on for the deep-seated reason that it's not expected to plea and it would be hell to convince a jury it really happened. There's other going to be a real doubt in that as to why, if an assault really did occur, the subject didn't go ahead and folder a police report at the time.

Can a Domain name be considered a business when used as a portfolio for college work?

I am appling for social services. During the summer, past the application process, I rented web space and a domain given name, which i am going to use as a portfolio for school work (i am taking net design). The dept of Social Services has implied that i enjoy a business under matching name as the domain. I hold not made any money from this website or alleged business nor have a done a DBA. Can they prove I own a business? The site is not used for commercial work.
Answers: It would depend upon the temper of the website. The domain name would not be the business - the site could be.

Can an insurance company contact my doctor and change my prescription minus my approval?

Medco Prescription Insurance Company has on two occasion contacted my doctors and had my medication changed lacking my approval. This is really starting to PISS me off. Do they enjoy the right?

For instance, I was taking Prevacid and it be doing a great job, but they contacted my doctor and asked that I be put on Nexium and he unquestionably agreed because I got a memorandum in the e-mail stating the change.

I don't charge if the medication is cheaper, and I don't care if my doctor prescribed a persuaded medication because he is getting kickbacks from the pharmaceutical companies. My point is, I trust my doctor, he is the one near a doctorate and he prescribed my medication for a reason. They should enjoy no right to contact my doctor without my approval and swing a prescription.

Does anyone agree? And do I have any merit contained by my argument? Does anyone know the legalities of this? I'm probably being hard-headed, but I'm tired of insurance companies pushing me around.

Thanks!
Answers: I muse it's totally BS too. I personally consider it's an invasion of privacy. If you have one of paperwork the insurance Co. sends, I think they ring it "Explanation of Benefits" see if it's written in the book that they enjoy the right to do it.My Insurance will only cover Generic Rx's and some of the Meds my husband is supposed to be taking don't come within Generic form. We are unable to remuneration full price for them so his Dr. will give him free sample.
yes they can

AND

Yes your doctor can tell the insurance company that it is a MEDICAL NECESSITY and next they will cover it

What determines your resident county for jury duty?


Answers: Voting registration
Depends on what your state uses. Sometimes state id/dmv records, sometimes voter registration, sometimes utility company files, etc.

Jury/Court Duty for a lawfull permanent resident ?

Can i also be called for Jury /Court - Duty if I am "just" a long-term resident (without conditions ) of the USA and not a citizen ?
Answers: You are not allowed to serve for jury duty if you are not a US citizen. If you hold a driver's license then they may grasp your address and call you, but you must stain the box saying "non-US citizen" and distribute it back.
Nope, citizens individual.

Can Judges break the law short consequence?

Hypothetical situation. Lets say I own a contract with someone that i loaned money to and charged an interest rate that be at the state maximum...for this situation lets influence 29%. The judge know he has to award me the judgement but scold me for charging such a high interest rate. I gain mad at the scolding and utter "Oh yeah well you gotta award me the money and here aint nothing you can do roughly speaking it." The judge consequently decides that since I be a smart alec he is going to order that the defendant doesnt enjoy to pay me a penny.

If a mediate abuses his power approaching this, what could someone do?
Answers: 1) Judges cannot break the law short consequence.

2) In your hypothetical as stated, he didn't break the law. He purely found you to be an unbelievable, not credible witness base on your demeanor and ruled against you.

3) Judges on TV do not have to follow the rules actual law lords follow. TV judges are in actuality private arbitrators. The parties hold agreed to have their small claims court cases settled on TV and then the result will be enter in the strict court records. But the TV decide can use any rule they want to come up with the declaration.

4) The immigrant you describe was partially treated and the judge should own been censure and possibly removed from the bench.

The state judicial commission regulates judges. That's where on earth you take your complaint.
nought ... it's really best to control your tongue with a regard as being. expense lesson , sorry you had to swot it.

the whole system is primarily corrupt.
Judges have a huge latitude within their decisions. They can completely overturn or dismiss cases at their fancy. In their Court they are God!
That`s what we have courts of appeal!
yes, i believe you hold grounds for an appeal based on that that the find was biased against you and disregarded the law. you probably should not hold gotten smart with him but he should own just held you surrounded by contept and fined you, he cannot ignore the statute. you should consult an attorney but it sounds like you hold grounds for an appeal
Nothing. He didn't break the law. He arranged what he thought was fair-minded. Judges create laws. Now that doesn't plan they can go out and murder someone and bring away with it but adjectives common law are created by judges decision. The law that said you should be awarded the money be just overrulled and accordingly the law be changed. Now, hypothetically, future debtors will know how to cite that case because the mediate awarded in favor of the debtor. That is until a sophisticated court judge overrules his judgment.
If you feel you be treated unfairly , next appeal the judgment. The US have a great judicial system that has built within ways of dealing with this type situation.
Absolutely not--a go-between cannot break the law in need consequence. A local judge surrounded by our county was disbarred a couple of years ago when it be learned that he be fixing parking tickets for his cronies.
The moral of the story is - Never get smart alecky next to a judge. Whether you agree or not next to what a judge says/decides, you freshly have to adopt it. Arguing with a settle can land a being in the pokey (contempt of court). Not a polite thing. Of interest surrounded by your story is that the judge yell at you for charging a high interest rate (his opinion). You don't read out whether the judge awarded the money or not.
Can you influence contempt of court? Can you say cooling your heels within a jail cell? Knew you could.
Judges are expected to uphold the canon, regardless of what they feel is right. In your hypothetical situation, you could appeal the finding to a higher court, which would overturn it.

But most states hold laws restricting the interest rates that can be charged, so this may not be that simple.
The referee is subject to the law as a private citizen. For example, he speeds, get a ticket. He hits someone in a hotel, he gets arrested. He masturbates, and uses penis pumps during trials. Not inside the scope of his duties, go to jail.

Within the flexibility of his duties, acting as a judge within a legal crust, he has nearly authentic immunity. The criminal syndicate i.e. the lawyer profession will protect him, without doubt. For example, every time the Supreme Court cancels a imperative, they are in unchecked insurrection and need to be tried for treason and hang. Never happen. Because they are a criminal syndicate protecting respectively other.

The sole recourse is to appeal to a higher court. He get slightly embarrassed by a reversal. Period.
The answer is yes, the trueness is judges can and do rebuff the law within their rulings without consequences.

Just because you record and appeal and you are legally right does not expect that you will win on appeal. Appeal court judges are even more arrogant than lower court law lords and will overrule a smart alec litigant (just because they can). Your only recourse later is a state Supreme Court, which pretty much means winter sport over if they ignore your baggage.
You've got no explanation of action against the referee b/c he has imperviousness so long as he was acting in the scope of his position.

How's this for a case?
Mom go to judge and asks him to proclaim her daughter be sterilized b/c the daughter is mentally retarded. He orders it and daughter is sterilized. Later contained by life she requirements to have kids and discovers she have been sterilized. She sues the find and loses b/c he was acting contained by his official size. I forgot the name of the grip, but I rare extreme example of law lords immunity.

What can you say almost workers comp?


Answers: Well I could say something roughly speaking asking a real request for information.

And I could say something going on for bitter partisens who see history only through a tremendously distorted lens.

But really I will say that Workers compensation is a form a manditory personal injury insurance that the parliament requires most employers to transport.

The intent is to strike a balance between 1) individuals human being required to both plan out the risk management for their specific job and, by reserves / personal insurance, provide for their income protection; and 2) businesses being held liable for adjectives accidents / occurances on or essential their workplace.

People really need to group together within order to hold the barganing power to create realisting rates / services. Add in that citizens do a lousy job of managing long-term intangible risks (esp low income populace who are more concerned with the direct problems of food/shelter/etc) and without some governement program most workers would be essentially uninsured.

On the other mitt businesses could not operate if they had to facade lawsuits and unpredictable expenses related to injuries caused by member of staff misconduct or design / system flaws or acts of God.

Hence, a form of insurance be made manditory that provided are reasonable plane of income protection for injured workers, and a predictable cost to businesses.
Conservatives will tell you its a socilaist organization to make nation weak and dependent on parliament.

They will also tell you that general public get injured on the profession because they don't take personal responsibility.

But that be before 1912, Conservative Republicans be whores for big business even then. At that point they found workers be suing and winning within Court large tort damages. So Republicans devised "Workmen's Comp" to screw workers out of getting what they deserve.

This have been the shape of Business Whore Republicans for the last 100 years. Screw everyone except the rich, until the rich are losing money, after devise another way to screw everyone while protecting the rich.

Legal: Appearing on TV?

I was lately interviewed on a cable station owned by one of the top networks. I took the video and played it on my website. I was told to run it down. Do I have the right to preserve it up there if my obverse and name is on at hand? I did not sign an appearance release.
Answers: It makes no difference if you did not sign an appearance release. In certainty, if you had signed a release, maybe then it could own been stipulated a right to use your own appearance. However since you don't enjoy any such agreement in place, the interview, near your face within it, becomes the sole property of the Cable station. They are in good health with surrounded by their right to ask you to take it bad your website. That's the law.
If you did not seize the cable station to sign a release giving you the right to broadcast the tape, you must bear it down.

Leaving Furniture and Household Valuables to My Children?

I live in Los Angeles. I do own a living will. Now, I have furniture and greatly of things I told each child to pick in a minute when I am alive, that way near won't be disagreements later on.
Is this o.k.?

I hold an itemized list of respectively item like let's say-so silver, couch, or buffet table. Each of my 3 kids picked what they wanted. All my 3 children and I signed the unbelievably bottom as an agreement to what would go to who. I also enjoy it notarized. Is this sufficient and will it hold in the court of directive in satchel of a disagreement?
Answers: It will not hold up once you are deceased. In demand to dispose of property after you are dead, you have need of to make a will. You can receive form books with simple wills contained by them, and do remember to have the will witnessed by three citizens who are not named surrounded by the will and who are not your relatives. The witnesses need to sign within your presence and in the presence of respectively other. You need to mark an executor of your estate who CAN be one of the beneficiaries, and you should probably direct that the executor's bond be dispensed with; otherwise, the cost of file the bond will swamp a small (<$50,000) estate.
The fact is, lower than California law this 'agreement' may not be valid. First, are you married? If so, the property is wedded in spirit unless purchased before the nuptials by you.

Secondly, if the agreement is to take the place of a will, later the following must be followed:

A California last will and testament must be signed:
By the testator In the testator's entitle by some other person within the testator's presence and by the testator's direction
By a conservator, pursuant to a court order to brand name a will

A California last will and testament must be signed by at lowest possible two persons respectively of whom (1) being present at like time, witnessed either the signing of the will or the testator's acknowledgment of the signature or of the will and (2) realize that the instrument they are signing is the testator's will.

I would stronly suggest you contact a local attorney or, if you cannot afford it, one of the local law school. They will usually h ave third-year law students who can review the agreement and offer you a valid opinion as to its legitimacy under California regulation.

What yr. did pericles reform the athenian gov?

please single answer if u are 100% positive
Answers: I guess no one be 100% positive, huh! LOL

Does it really matter?

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